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Someone had to pose the question rich,and well done for taking the bullet😂 very well said too! i think what happens is: it doesnt set a new value, but it certainly inflates it..so for exampl
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This old chestnut. My tuppenyworth. 1) Disposable income. There are a lot of very rich people wanting records (not just old quite a few younger folk in well paid jobs - Tech, Banks, Creative Arts
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It is quite amazing how one simple comment has stirred up so much passion. The price of everything is based on supply and demand, if supply is scarce and demand is high then prices will be high. It ha
Lots of discussion recently regarding the 'unreal' prices achieved for certain records. Does the price achieved set a new perceived 'market value' - Not in my view, all it tells us is that ONLY ONE PERSON (in the world?) was prepared to pay that price on that day. So in theory if the record (different copy) was auctioned the next day the 2nd highest bidder from the first auction would only have to beat the 3rd highest bidder from the first auction i.e. 1 increment above the figure 3rd highest bidder dropped out. These 2 now have the record so anyone now wanting to sell a copy is selling to a 'market' most of whom wouldn't pay anything like the first ending auction price. Personally I would look at the auction price where the bulk of bidders dropped out to get some idea of perceived current 'market value' (I didn't watch the recent Cecil auction but that would have been interesting to view). all theoretical I know but that how I look at these auctions.